Originally Posted By: jawbone
Originally Posted By: SouthBamaSlayer

Originally Posted By: doekiller
Come on. Give the guy a break. He got pretrial diversion for his FELONY domestic violence strangulation charge.


Does that still allow him to posses a firearm? Lay-man's terms for us non-attorneys please.


What that means is that if he completes the judges wishes, probably first and foremost a DV class, then the charges will be dropped (usually) or reduced to whatever the judge has agreed to reduce them to. Without running a criminal history we don't know what the final outcome was. I'm pretty confident that he wasn't left with a Felony conviction or that would have put him in violation of both Federal for the DV and Felony and State for the Felony.

A lot of times this is done in these cases because the two parties get back together and recant their story which makes it hard to prosecute, so the prosecution will work a deal to at least get him in a DV prevention program.

I did run his background. He completed pretrial diversion and the case was nol prossed. (Dismissed)