if i am interpreting this correctly, the amendment would require, in effect, the state supreme court to let stand this right no matter the intended interference by any municipal/county agency/government.
example: let's say the city of whoville, alabama, passes a city law that would cause an infringement of the state's interpretation of the second amendment, perhaps not allowing semiautomatic rifle/shotgun/pistol ownership in city limits. this city law would not stand strictest scrutiny, and would be struck down by the court.

but, hey, i could be wrong ...