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300, I grew up Baptist as well and I believe in a literal Acts 2:38 also. I think the question here is what does Acts 2:38 "literally" say? To find out you have to breakdown the language..the alliteration of the Greek manuscripts. Then put that into context with the entire scripture. I do not know of a single occurrence where a major doctrinal issue was only found and supported in one verse. To fully know what the Scriptures say one really needs to do three things:

Examination of the verse's syntax, grammar and structure.
Examine other verses dealing with the forgiveness of sins.
Examine the verse in its covenant context.




The Greek: the main verb is metanoesate (change mind), the aorist direct imperative (a command) of metanoeo which means to repent (change mind). This refers to that initial repentance of the sinner unto salvation. The verb translated "be baptized" is in the indirect passive imperative (a command to receive; hence, passive voice in Greek1) of baptizo, which does not give it the same direct command implied in "repent." The preposition "for" in the phrase "for the remission of sins" in Greek is "eis," unto or into, and it is in the accusative case (direct object). It can mean "for the purpose of identifying you with the remission of sins." It is the same preposition we find in 1 Cor. 10:2 in the phrase "and were baptized unto Moses." Note that both contexts are dealing with baptism and identification. In 1 Cor. 10:2 the people were baptized or spiritually identifying themselves with the purposes and vision of Moses.

Repentance, therefore, is presented as identifying an individual with the remission of his sins, even as baptism following repentance provides an external identification visible by others. Repentance is something that concerns an individual and God while baptism involves others. That is why baptistheto (let be immersed) is in the passive voice indicating that one does not baptize himself, but is baptized by another usually in the presence of others. Repentance, however, is an act taking place within a person's heart as the Holy Spirit moves in the sinner.

As Circumcision was an outward sign of the Old Covenant, Baptism is the outward sign of the New Covenant. We are IDENTIFIED in Christ through Baptism. Nowhere in Scripture does it tell us that we are justified by grace + baptism, faith + baptism, or faith + anything else. We are however told how to be obedient because of our faith.

Paul in his writings to the Corinthians does not include Baptism in the Gospel message (1 Cor 14 and 15). Acts 10 shows that there was salvation prior to any baptism of the Gentiles because the Spirit came upon them. Now if baptism was required for salvation (faith + doctrine) then how did that happen? The Bible teaches strait from its word that we are justified by Faith alone in Christ alone by Grace alone.

This all goes back to the covenant context. The Jews were given a covenant sign of circumcision through Abraham..they the Jews were God's chosen people. Circumcision didn't save them though in the OT, They were saved by the Law and righteousness. The New Testament brought a new covenant through Christ's blood on the cross. The outward covenant sign is Baptism, but baptism doesn't save us. Faith and belief in the Gospel message (Christ died for us as a sacrifice) is the only thing that justifies us sinners to a Holy God. As non-Jews we could not enter the Abrahamic covenant...but through Christ we can because we are baptised of the heart (circumcised by Christ in our hearts).

Every true believer is indeed baptized by a regeneration of the heart but this is inward. Outward baptism is a sign that we believe. An important sign. In essence it replaces the OT covenant of circumcision. But Scripture shows us that it is not faith + baptism that gives us justification.

So as Peter was preaching to the Jews in Acts 2, he was telling them of the new way...the new covenant...and the new covenant sign of baptism. Later in acts 10, the spirit fell upon them before any were ever baptized by water. Their spirit experienced a circumcision of the heart...a baptism inwardly of Christ. Peter wasn't preaching water baptism here.

Acts 2:38 closely links repentance and baptism because of the covenant context. Peter is saying that baptism is the complete and total covenant identification with Christ in His death, burial, and resurrection. It is not the covenant representation (baptism) of what Christ did that saves us, but the reality of His sacrifice which we receive by faith.

The Scripture lays this out clearly. We may disagree on the Scripture context, but the Word is clear.