Originally Posted By: Bamarich2
Respectfully, you cannot prove these assertions by using the Bible. If baptism was not needed in the time period when Paul preached, the account of Acts 19:1-5 would not exist. This passage very clearly claims there was a difference between John's baptism and Christ's baptism. Also, this same Paul that you claim didn't include baptism stated in Galatians 3:27-28 that both Jews & Gentiles had been baptized into Christ and become part of the body. Furthermore, this same Paul claimed in 1 Corinthians 1:14-16 that he had baptized Chrispus, Gaius, and the household of Stephanus. Finally, this same Paul wrote in Colossians 2:12 that people were "buried with Christ in baptism"... and the letter of Colossians was addressed to the church at Colossae... not just Jewish Christians who met there. As someone else mentioned above, Scripture is the authority... and we must correctly handle it (2 Timothy 2:15).
I would be glad to discuss each one of these a little later today when I have time to dive off into each one of them. Thanks for taking the time to dive in with us!


"The only reason I shoot a 3.5" shell for turkeys is because they don't make a 4" one." - t123winters